[Math] Prove that if there exists a bijection $f: X\to N$, where $N$ is finite, then $X$ is finite.

elementary-set-theory

I was given that $X$ is finite if any function that maps $X$ to $X$ is surjective and injective. Also, the problem specifies the finite set $N$ as a set with $n$ elements.

Now, I only know that there exists one function that is surjective and injective from $X$ to $X$:
Define $X_1=X_2$ and $f: X_1\to N$ and $g: X_2\to N$. Since the composition of two surjective function is surjective, $f-1(g(X_1))$ is surjective. Thus, there is one function from $X$ to $X$ that is both injective and surjective.

But how can I prove that for every function from $X$ to $X$ itself is both injective and surjective?

Can anyone help me with this problem? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

Best Answer

The proof of the title is logical. If there exists a bijection $f$ between $X$ and a finite set $F$, then we say that $\forall f\in F,\exists x\in X:f(x)=f$, and $\forall x\in X,\exists f\in F:f(x)=f$. Thus, there is a one to one correspondence between elements of $X$ and $F$. Therefore, if $F$ is finite, $X$ is finite, i.e., it has $n$ elements.

In axiomatic set theory, the existence of a bijection $X\to F$ is taken to be the definition of "same number of elements".

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