[Math] Prove that if $A \setminus B = \emptyset$, then $A \subseteq B$

elementary-set-theory

Prove that if $A \setminus B = \emptyset$, then $A \subseteq B$.

The Venn Diagram helped me to visualize what I'm trying to show (thanks @GA316), but the book asks for a written proof (step by step) by contradiction. Sorry if I wasn't more specific at first, is just that I've had many troubles in the past with proofs, somehow I have many ideas but I can't seem to connect them to get to the final proof.

This is what I have so far:
$P \rightarrow Q$ is equivalent to $\neg Q \rightarrow \neg P$ contraposition (thanks @The Chaz 2.0)

With P: $ A \setminus B = \emptyset$ and Q: $ A \subseteq B$

so $ \neg Q \equiv A \not\subseteq B\ , \exists x \in A : x \notin B $

be $ t: t \in A \wedge t \notin B $ …is this right?

as this is the definition for $A \setminus B \ne \emptyset$ …is this right?

$\therefore \neg Q \rightarrow \neg P \equiv A \not\subseteq B\ \rightarrow A \setminus B \ne\emptyset$

I have many concerns regarding if I'm using the correct notation. I am trying to learn this by myself and have nobody else to ask.

Also, sorry if it took me too long to update, I just started learning about this LaTEX notation.

Thank you very much in advance, you guys are so nice and helpful. You made me feel very welcomed and sure I need to read more about the rules and instructions for using this site.

Best Answer

HINT: Just follow the definitions. In order to show that $A\subseteq B$, you should let $x$ be an arbitrary element of $A$ and somehow use the hypothesis that $A\setminus B=\varnothing$ to show that $x\in B$. What if $x$ were not in $B$? Then you’d have $x\in A$ and $x\notin B$, which would tell you that $x$ is in ... what?

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