Let us start with
$$h(x) = \begin{cases}
\hphantom{-}4(x+2) &, -2\leqslant x < -\frac{3}{2}\\
-4(x+1) &, -\frac{3}{2} \leqslant x < -1\\
-4(x-1) &,
\hphantom{-}\; 1 \leqslant x < \frac{3}{2}\\
\hphantom{-} 4(x-2) &,
\hphantom{-}\frac{3}{2}\leqslant x < 2\\
\qquad 0 &,
\hphantom{-} \text{ otherwise.} \end{cases}$$
For $c > 0$, let
$$h_c(x) = c\cdot h(c\cdot x).$$
Then $h_c$ is continuous, and $\int_{-\infty}^0 h_c(x)\,dx = 1$ as well as $\int_{-\infty}^\infty h_c(x)\,dx = 0$. Now let
$$g(x) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty h_{5^n}\left(x-n-\frac{1}{2}\right).$$
Every $g_n(x) = h_{5^n}\left(x-n-\frac12\right)$ vanishes identically outside the interval $[n,n+1]$, so $g$ is continuous, and
$$f(x) = \int_0^x g(t)\,dt$$
is well-defined and continuously differentiable.
Furthermore, $f(x) \equiv 0$ on every interval $\left[n, n+\frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{5^n}\right]$, and $f(x) \equiv 1$ on every interval $\left[n+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{5^n}, n+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{5^n}\right]$. Thus on
$$X = \bigcup_{n=1}^\infty \left(\left[n, n+\frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{5^n}\right] \cup \left[n+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{5^n}, n+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{5^n}\right]\right)$$
we have $f' \equiv 0$, so the derivative is bounded, but
$$f\left(n+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{5^n}\right) - f\left(n+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{2}{5^n}\right) = 1$$
for all $n$, while the distance between the two points is $5^{-n}$ which becomes arbitrarily small, so $f$ is not uniformly continuous on $X$.
If the sentence
Note that $X$ cannot be an interval, a disjoint union of intervals, nor can it be a discrete set.
was meant to forbid a construction as above where $X$ is a disjoint union of intervals, we can obey the letter of the law (but not the spirit) by adding an arbitrary subset of $(-\infty,0)$ that is not a union of disjoint intervals.
No, this is quite false. The absolute value function $|x|$ is uniformly continuous, but isn't differentiable (the derivative, however, does exist almost everywhere and is bounded). This can be easily extended to give a uniformly Lipschitz function whose derivative fails to exist at a given finite set.
For a better counterexample, note that the function $x^{1/3}$ is uniformly continuous, but its derivative doesn't exist at $0$, and is unbounded in every neighborhood of zero.
For an even more spectacular example, the Weierstrass function is uniformly continuous on $[-1,1]$, but is differentiable nowhere.
Best Answer
Since $f'$ is bounded then there's $M>0$ s.t. $$|f'(x)|\leq M\quad \forall x\in\mathbb{R}$$ hence by mean value theorem we find $$|f(x)-f(y)|\leq M|x-y|\quad \forall x,y\in\mathbb{R}$$ so $f$ is a lipschitzian function on $\mathbb{R}$ and therefore it's s uniformly continuous on $\mathbb{R}$.