[Math] Prove $f(x) = \frac{1}{x}$ is smooth (infinitely differentiable).

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I have never proved that a function is smooth (infinitely differentiable) before. The only function that comes to mind which is smooth is $g(x) = e^{x}$, because it is defined on all of $\Bbb R$, continuous everywhere, and once you prove that $g'(x) = e^{x}$, you are done in showing that it is infinitely differentiable, i.e., smooth.

How would I prove that the function $f(x) = \frac{1}{x}$ is smooth everywhere except at $0$? It's not hard to show that the derivative at each $x \neq 0$ of $f$ is $-\frac{1}{x^{2}}$. So, I have that the first derivative exists. How do I go about showing that derivatives of all orders exist?

Best Answer

First fact: every rational function is differentiable and its derivative is a rational function.

This is clear since

$$\frac{d}{dx} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \frac{f'(x) g(x) - f(x) g'(x)}{g^2(x)}$$

Iterating the argument, you can show that every rational functions is infinitely differentiable (formally you have to use induction).

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