Let $p$ be a non-zero natural number. Prove by considering the partial sums that
$\sum \frac{1}{k(k+p)}$
converges. What is $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k(k+p)}$
No idea. Obviously, it looks like a telescoping series. Sure doesn't act like one. I have tried to treat it like I would a telescoping series to see if it would get me any where–it did not.
Alongside advice on how to do this one. If people could also offer general advice on taking partial sums that would be greatly appreciated.
Best Answer
Hint: Write $$\frac1{k(k+p)}=\frac{A}{k}+\frac{B}{k+p}.$$ Solve for $A$ and $B,$ and you'll find that the series does telescope.
Added: Now that I'm back at my computer and have a little time, and now that you've accepted an answer, I'll expand on my own. You should readily find that $A=\frac1p$ and $B=-\frac1p.$ Consequently, we can rewrite the series as $$\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^\infty\left(\frac1k-\frac1{k+p}\right).$$ To prove convergence and find the limit, it will suffice to consider the partial sums $$S_n:=\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^n\left(\frac1k-\frac1{k+p}\right).$$ We'd like to get this into a more convenient form, as a difference of sums, rather than a sum of differences. That is, we'll rewrite it as $$S_n=\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1k-\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1{k+p},\tag{1}$$ which identity is readily proved by arithmetic properties.
Now, take any integer $m\ge1$ and note that $$\sum_{k=1}^{p+m}\frac1k=\sum_{k=1}^p\frac1k+\sum_{k=p+1}^{p+m}\frac1k.\tag{2}$$ On the other hand, $$\sum_{k=1}^{p+m}\frac1{k+p}=\sum_{k=1}^{p+m}\frac1{p+k}=\sum_{k=1}^m\frac1{p+k}+\sum_{k=m+1}^{p+m}\frac1{p+k}=\sum_{k=p+1}^{p+m}\frac1k+\sum_{k=m+1}^{p+m}\frac1{p+k}.\tag{3}$$
Consequently, by $(1)$ through $(3),$ we have for any integer $m\ge1$ that $$S_{p+m}=\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^p\frac1k-\frac1p\sum_{k=m+1}^{p+m}\frac1{p+k}=\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^p\frac1k-\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^p\frac1{p+m+k}.\tag{$\star$}$$ Now, for any such integer $m,$ we have $$0<\sum_{k=1}^p\frac1{p+m+k}<\sum_{k=1}^p\frac1{p+m+1}=\frac{p}{p+m+1},$$ so $$-\frac1{p+m+1}<-\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^p\frac1{p+m+1}<0,$$ and so by $(\star),$ we have $$-\frac1{p+m+1}<S_{p+m}-\frac1p\sum_{k=1}^p\frac1k<0$$ for all integers $m\ge1.$ A quick application of the Squeeze Theorem shows that the sequence of partial sums converges to $\frac1p\sum\limits_{k=1}^p\frac1k,$ proving series convergence and giving us its sum.