For the induction case, we should show that $(n+1)^4-4(n+1)^2$ is also divisible by 3 assuming that 3 divides $n^4-4n^2$. So,
$$ \begin{align} (n+1)^4-4(n+1)&=(n^4+4n^3+6n^2+4n+1)-4(n^2+2n+1)
\\ &=n^4+4n^3+2n^2-4n-3
\\ &=n^4+2n^2+(-6n^2+6n^2)+4n^3-4n-3
\\ &=(n^4-4n^2) + (4n^3+6n^2-4n)-3
\end{align}$$
Now $(n^4-4n^2)$ is divisible by 3, and $-3$ is divisible by 3. Now I am stuck on what to do to the remaining expression.
So, how to show that $4n^3+6n^2-4n$ should be divisible by 3? Or is there a better way to prove the statement in the title? Thank you!
Best Answer
Well, obviously $6n^2$ is divisible by $3$.
And $4n^3-4n=4(n-1)n(n+1)$. Since $(n-1)n(n+1)$ is the product of three consecutive integers, one of them is divisible by $3$ and therefore their product has that property too.