[Math] Proof of logical equivalence $(p\rightarrow q)\wedge(q\rightarrow r)\Leftrightarrow p\rightarrow (q\wedge r)$

logicpropositional-calculus

I have the standard logical equivalence:
$(p\rightarrow q)\wedge(q\rightarrow r)\Leftrightarrow p\rightarrow (q\wedge r)$.

Using several distributive laws I was able to get it down to:
$(\neg p\wedge\neg q) \vee (\neg p\wedge r) \vee (q\wedge r)$.

I must be missing some manipulation I can do to reduce this.

Best Answer

Umm... maybe I am missing something, but

if $p$ is false, $q$ is true and $r$ is false, then we have that

$(p\rightarrow q)\wedge(q\rightarrow r)$ is false

$p\rightarrow (q\wedge r)$ is true.

So I don't see how you can prove the equivalence.

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