[Math] Proof of connection between improper Riemann Integral and Lebesgue integral

improper-integralsintegrationlebesgue-integralreal-analysis

"An improper Riemann integral is Lebesgue integrable if it is absolutely convergent. "

I've seen this statement quite often, but always without proof. I'd think if we have something like:
$$ \int_{0}^\infty |f(x)|dx<\infty$$

there has to be a point $c\in\mathbb{R}$, where the integral doesn't "grow" anymore i.e.

$$ \int_{0}^\infty |f(x)|dx \leq \int_{0}^c |f(x)|dx<\infty$$

otherwise the integral could not be convergent ( similar as to how an infinite sequence has to be a zero sequence in order for the infinite sum to be convergent ).

But I'm having trouble formalising this or in general finding a proper proof. What is a simple way to prove this theorem?

Best Answer

If $|f|$ is Riemann integrable on any bounded interval this coincides with the Lebesgue integral. We have by the monotone convergence theorem,

$$\int_0^\infty |f(x)| \, dx = \lim_{c \to \infty} \int_0^c |f(x)| \, dx = \lim_{c \to \infty} \int_{[0,c]} |f| = \lim_{c \to \infty} \int_{[0, \infty)} |f| \chi_{[0,c]} = \int_{[0,\infty)}|f|$$

Here I use $\int_a^b g(x) \, dx$ to denote a Riemann integral and $\int_{[a,b]} g$ to denote a Lebesgue integral.

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