[Math] Proof for the equation of a line passing through the intersection of two lines(family of lines).

geometry

Let $L_1$ be a line, $a_1X + b_1Y+ c_1 =0$,
$L_2$ be a line, $a_2X + b_2Y+ c_2= 0$.

Then prove that the equation of line(s) passing through the intersection of these two line is of type $\mathbf{L_1 + KL_2 = 0}$.

We can prove it by multiply two equations with different constants and then adding them…, this proof didn't worked for me,therefore i need a best proof, prove it directly or give me some awesome hints.

Best Answer

Let $C(x_0,y_0)$ be the common point $L_1 \cap L_2$. Thus

$$\begin{cases}a_1x_0 + b_1y_0+ c_1 =0\\a_2x_0 + b_2y_0+ c_2 =0\end{cases}$$

By difference with the initial equations, we obtain the new equivalent equations:

$$\tag{1}\begin{cases}a_1(x-x_0) + b_1(y-y_0)=0 \ \ (L_1)\\a_2(x-x_0) + b_2 (y-y_0)=0 \ \ (L_2)\end{cases} \ \ \implies \ \underbrace{(a_1+Ka_2)(x-x_0) + (b_1+Kb_2)(y-y_0)=0}_{\text{line} (L_1+KL_2)}$$

As any line passing through C has (for fixed coefficients $u$ and $v$) the following equation:

$$\tag{2}u(x-x_0) + v(y-y_0)=0,$$ it suffices to check that there can exist a value of $K$ such that

$$\tag{3}\frac{a_1+Ka_2}{u}= \frac{b_1+Kb_2}{v}$$

(equations (1) and (2) should not necessarily be the same, but they must have proportionnal coefficients).

(3) is a first degree equation that has a single solution, except for a special case where $a_2v-b_2u=0$ (i.e., line $(L_2)$ : see my comment just after the question.)

Remarks:

a) In (3) we have assumed $u\neq0$ and $v\neq0$. This little technical difficulty is removed if one uses, instead of fractions, a determinant equal to zero.

b) What we have done is equivalent to an origin shift.

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