Okay, let's first see why the first binary digit of $U$ is Bernoulli$(1/2)$. The first binary digit is $1$ if and only if $U \geq 1/2$, which has probability $1/2$, so we are done. For convenience, let $B_n$ denote the $n^{th}$ binary digit of $U$. Now, inductively assume that $B_1,\ldots,B_{n-1}$ are i.i.d. Bernoulli$(1/2)$. Then, look at the conditional probability $q_n:=\mathbb{P}(B_n=1\big|(B_1,\ldots,B_{n-1})=(b_1,\ldots,b_{n-1}))$, for a sequence $(b_1,\ldots,b_{n-1}) \in \{0,1\}^{n-1}$. Divide the interval $[0,1]$ into the diadic intervals of length $1/2^{n-1}$, and let these intervals be enumerated from left to right as $I_1,I_2,...I_{2^{n-1}}$. Now, what does the event $(B_1,\ldots,B_{n-1})=(b_1,\ldots,b_{n-1})$ say? It says that (is equal to the following event) $U$ must lie in exactly one of these diadic intervals, say $I_i$, where $i$ is a (complicated, but don't need to know) deterministic function of the deterministic binary sequence $(b_1,\ldots,b_{n-1})$. The way to find this interval is to follow a binary search algorithm, similar to the proof of the Heini-Borel theorem in real analysis.
Anyway, let $m_i$ be the midpoint of $I_i$. So,
$$q_n = \mathbb{P}(U > m_i|U\in I_i)~.$$ The above probability is obviously $1/2$. This shows that $B_n$ has a Bernoulli$(1/2)$ distribution, independent of $(B_1,\ldots,B_{n-1})$, and the induction is complete.
There are surely typos in your post as you have the same notation for both uniform rvs and Poisson rvs. Either way, the last expectation is not that hard.
You see, $X_1,...,X_n$ are iids, hence .
$ \mathbb{E}\left( \frac{X_1}{X_1+...+X_n} \right) = \mathbb{E}\left( \frac{X_2}{X_1+...+X_n} \right)=etc$
As their sum is clearly equation to 1, the desired expectation is equal to $\frac{1}{n+1}$
Best Answer
We can at least work out the distribution of two IID ${\rm Uniform}(0,1)$ variables $X_1, X_2$: Let $Z_2 = X_1 X_2$. Then the CDF is $$\begin{align*} F_{Z_2}(z) &= \Pr[Z_2 \le z] = \int_{x=0}^1 \Pr[X_2 \le z/x] f_{X_1}(x) \, dx \\ &= \int_{x=0}^z \, dx + \int_{x=z}^1 \frac{z}{x} \, dx \\ &= z - z \log z. \end{align*}$$ Thus the density of $Z_2$ is $$f_{Z_2}(z) = -\log z, \quad 0 < z \le 1.$$ For a third variable, we would write $$\begin{align*} F_{Z_3}(z) &= \Pr[Z_3 \le z] = \int_{x=0}^1 \Pr[X_3 \le z/x] f_{Z_2}(x) \, dx \\ &= -\int_{x=0}^z \log x dx - \int_{x=z}^1 \frac{z}{x} \log x \, dx. \end{align*}$$ Then taking the derivative gives $$f_{Z_3}(z) = \frac{1}{2} \left( \log z \right)^2, \quad 0 < z \le 1.$$ In general, we can conjecture that $$f_{Z_n}(z) = \begin{cases} \frac{(- \log z)^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}, & 0 < z \le 1 \\ 0, & {\rm otherwise},\end{cases}$$ which we can prove via induction on $n$. I leave this as an exercise.