Consider a gambler who has $k$ coins when he enters a casino. The gambler plays a game in which he wins $1$ coin if he wins a round and loses $1$ coin if he loses a round. He wins a round with probability $\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}$ and loses a round with probability $\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}$. The gambler is considered to win the game if he ends with $n$ coins ($n \gt k$) at some point of time and is considered to lose a game if he ends with $0$ coins.
What is the probability that the gambler wins the game on the $m^{th}$ round(where $m\gt n-k$ and $m=n-k+2r $ for some $r\in\Bbb{N}$ ) such that he does not end with $0$ coins or $n$ coins in any of the earlier $m-1$ rounds.
$\color{green}{\text{My try:}}$
Due to a lot of restrictions on the parameters and the event, I tried to work out the problems for some small values of $n,m,k$ to get an idea on how the probability might be. On obtaining some sequences of numbers I tried searching the sequence on OEIS to get an idea over the explicit form for the probability.
But even after trying a lot of values for $n,m,k$ I couldn't conjecture an explicit form for the probability.
If we denote the probability that the gambler wins in the $m^{th} $ round by $p_m$ then I could only conjecture that
$$p_m=\displaystyle f_{n,k,m} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{m}$$
For some natural numbers $f_{n,k,m}$ which depend on the values of $n,k,m$. It is quite easily noticeable that $$f_{n,k,n-k}=1$$ but other than this I couldn't find a general pattern for the $f_{n,k,m}$'s.
Any help would be greatly appreciated. Also if it would be possible to create a generating function for $f_{n,k,m}$ then that generating function would also suffice to solve the problem ( I tried to form a generating function for the $f_{n,k,m}$'s but failed miserably).
* Edit *
Some values I tried are ("assuming I have counted them correctly"):
$$f_{6,2,4}=f_{6,3,3}=f_{5,2,3}=f_{6,4,2}=f_{5,1,4}=1$$
$$f_{6,2,6}=4$$
$$f_{6,2,8}=13$$
$$f_{6,3,5}=3$$
$$f_{6,3,7}=9$$
$$f_{6,3,9}=27$$
$$f_{5,2,5}=3$$
$$f_{5,2,7}=8$$
$$f_{5,2,9}=21$$
$$f_{5,2,11}=55$$
$$f_{6,4,4}=2$$
$$f_{6,4,6}=5$$
$$f_{6,4,8}=14$$
$$f_{5,1,6}=3$$
$$f_{5,1,8}=8$$
$$f_{5,1,10}=21$$
$$f_{5,1,12}=55$$
Best Answer
We provide an answer and link it with already given answers which might help to see connections.
Some observations:
We can reduce the problem to a combinatorial one by counting all paths starting from $(0,k)$ to $(m-1,n-1)$ using steps $(1,1)$ and $(1,-1)$ which do not reach the lines $y=0$ and $y=n$.
The starting point represents the $k$ coins of the gambler he has right at the beginning. Winning a round increases his coins by one which is represented by a step $(1,1)$ and loosing a round means also going in $x$-direction by one, but decreasing $y$ by one, so we make a step $(1,-1)$.
Each valid path from $(0,k)$ to $(m-1,n-1)$ has length $m-1$ and is realised with probability $\frac{1}{2^{m-1}}$. In order to reach $(m,n)$ this can only be done in one step from $(m-1,n-1)$ to $(m,n)$ with probability $\frac{1}{2}$, so that the number of valid paths from $(0,k)$ to $(m-1,n-1)$ has finally to be divided by $2^m$ to find the wanted probability.
We can normalise the situation by shifting $(0,k)$ to $(0,0)$ and consider the equivalent problem to count the number of lattice paths from $(0,0)$ to $(m-1,n-1-k)$ using steps $(1,1)$ and $(1,-1)$ without reaching the boundaries $y=n-k$ and $y=-k$. We denote this number of valid paths by \begin{align*} L_{m-1,n-1-k;n-k,k} \end{align*}
In the current situation we obtain from (1) the number of valid paths for OP's problem:
Comment:
In (3) we shift in the left-most series the index by one to start with $j=0$. In the third series we merge the single left-most term from (2).
In (4) we combine the two-right most series as well as the two left-most series.
.