My approach is maybe more naive than the others posted.
Break the unit interval at $x$ and $y$ where $x < y$. Our lengths are then $x$, $y - x$, and $1 - y$. It's not hard to show that they all have probability $1/3$ of being the shortest. In any case, our joint PDF is given by $f(x,y) = 6$ (since $x$ and $y$ remain uniform random variables on $1/6$th of the square $[0,1] \times [0,1]$). Each triangle in the diagram below corresponds to the domain of the PDF for one of the three cases.
I'll take care of the case when $x$ is shortest, that is, $x \leq y - x$ and $x \leq 1 - y$. This is the leftmost triangle. Since we're assuming $x$ is least, we are looking for
$$E[x] = \int_0^{1/3} \int_{2x}^{1 - x} 6x \;dy \;dx = 1/9$$
The cases when $y - x$ and $1 - y$ are shortest are similar.
Let $f(x)$ be the probability that we eventually cut off at least $x$ from a stick of length $1$, with $1\ge x\ge1/2$. We can either succeed by immediately cutting off at least $x$, with probability $1-x$, or by leaving $t\ge x$ and then cutting off $x$ from a stick of length $t$. Thus we have
$$
f(x)=1-x+\int_x^1f(x/t)\mathrm dt\;.
$$
Substituting $u=x/t$ yields
$$f(x)=1-x+x\int_x^1f(u)/u^2\mathrm du\;.\tag1$$
Then differentiating with respect to $x$ yields
$$f'(x)=-1-f(x)/x+\int_x^1f(u)/u^2\mathrm du\;,$$
and differentiating again yields
$$f''(x)=-f'(x)/x+f(x)/x^2-f(x)/x^2=-f'(x)/x\;,$$
so
$$
\frac{f''(x)}{f'(x)}=-\frac1x
$$
and thus
$$
\begin{align}
\log f'(x)&=-\log x +c\;,\\
f'(x)&=a/x\;,\\
f(x)&=a\log x+b\;.
\end{align}
$$
Now $f(1)=0$ yields $b=0$, and then substituting into $(1)$ yields $a=-1$, so $f(x)=-\log x$ and
$$f(1/2)=\log2\approx0.693\;.$$
Best Answer
Since your distributions are uniform, and your probability space is a subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$, you can picture the probabilities directly as areas. The following picture should give you an idea of what's going on. The outer rectangle is your probability space. It has a total area of $37^2$, which amounts of course to a probability of $1$.
Each point represents a pair $(X_1,X_2)$. The orange areas are the points where all pieces have at least length $3$, and have total area $A = A_1 + A_2 = 28^2$. That corresponds to the probability $P = \frac{28^2}{37^2}$.