The answers are (a) $40/100$; (b) $40/100$; (c) $40/100$.
(a) Since balls tend to roll around, let us imagine instead that we have $100$ cards, with the numbers $1$ to $100$ written on them. The cards with numbers $1$ to $40$ are red, and the rest are blue.
The cards are shuffled thoroughly, and we deal the top card.
There are $100$ cards, and each of them is equally likely to be the top card. Since $40$ of the cards are red, it follows that the probability of "success" (first card drawn is red) is $40/100$.
(b) If we think about (b) the right way, it should be equally clear that the probability is $40/100$. The probability that any particular card is the fifteenth one drawn is the same as the probability that it is the first one drawn: all permutations of the $100$ cards are equally likely. It follows that the probability that the fifteenth card drawn is red is $40/100$.
(c) First, fifteenth, eighty-eighth, last, it is all the same, since all permutations of the cards are equally likely.
Another way: We look again at (a), using a more complicated sample space.
Again we use the card analogy. There are $\binom{100}{40}$ ways to decide on the locations of the $40$ red cards (but not which red cards occupy these locations). All these ways are equally likely.
In how many ways can we choose these $40$ locations so that Position $1$ is one of the chosen locations? We only need to choose $39$ locations, and this can be done in $\binom{99}{39}$ ways.
So the desired probability is
$$\frac{\binom{99}{39}}{\binom{100}{40}}.$$
Compute. The top is $\frac{99!}{39!60!}$ and the bottom is $\frac{100!}{40!60!}$. Divide. There is a lot of cancellation. We quickly get $40/100$.
Now count the number of ways to find locations for the reds that include Position $15$. An identical argument shows that the number of such choices is $\binom{99}{39}$, so again we get probability $40/100$.
Another other way: There are other reasonable choices of sample space. The largest natural one is the set of $100!$ permutations of our $100$ cards. Now we count the permutations that have a red in a certain position, say Position $15$.
The red in Position $15$ can be chosen in $40$ ways. For each of these ways, the remaining $99$ cards can be arranged in $99!$ ways, for a total of $(40)(99!)$. Thus the probability that we have a red in Position $15$ is
$$\frac{(40)(99!)}{100!},$$
which quickly simplifies to $40/100$. The same argument works for any other specific position.
We have $r$ red, $w$ white, and $b$ blue. The first question you have is about the probability that all the red are drawn before any white are drawn.
Forget about the blues, they are irrelevant. Imagine that we
only record whether a drawn ball is red and white. A blue is a non-event. All the red are drawn before any white if and only if the first $r$ recorded draws are red. There are $\binom{r+w}{r}$ equally likely records. Only $1$ of them is all red.
So our probability is $\dfrac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$.
For the "before $2$ white are drawn" the argument is similar. The event we are concerned with can happen in two ways: (i) all the red are drawn first or (ii) there is exactly one white in the first $r$ draws, and then a red (again, we can forget about the blues).
We have already found the probability of (i).
For the probability of (ii), the number of ways to draw $r-1$ red and $1$ white in the first $r$ recorded draws is $\binom{r}{r-1}\binom{w}{1}$. So the probability this has happened is $\frac{rw}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$. Given this happened, there are $w$ balls of significance left, of which one is red. Thus the probability of (ii) is $\frac{rw}{\binom{r+w}{r}}\frac{1}{w}=\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$.
Add the probabilities of (i) and (ii).
Best Answer
There are $$\binom{100}{r}$$ sequences of length $100$ consisting of $r$ red balls and $100-r$ non-red balls.
The number of sequences in which the first ball is red is $\binom{99}{r-1}$. The number of sequences in which the 50-th ball is red is $\binom{99}{r-1}$. The number of sequences in which the 100-th ball is red is $\binom{99}{r-1}$.
In fact, for any $i \in \{1,2,\ldots,100\}$, the number of sequences in which the $i$-th ball is red is $\binom{99}{r-1}$.
Hence, for any $i \in \{1,2,\ldots,100\}$, the probability that the $i$-th ball is red is $$\frac{\binom{99}{r-1}}{\binom{100}{r}}=\frac{r}{100}.$$