[Math] Probability of placing $k$ balls in $n$ bins

probability

We have $n$ bins and $k$ balls, with $1 \leq k \leq n$.
The balls are placed in the bins, knowing that the placement of each ball is independent of the others, and that the bins are chosen in an equiprobable way.

  1. Calculate the probability that each bin contains at most one ball.
  2. Calculate the probability that a bin contains all balls.
  3. Calculate the probability that a bin contains at least two balls.

My attempt:

  1. The probability that each bin contains at most one ball is the probability that a bin contains at most one ball $n$ times. Now, the probability that a bin contains at most one ball is the probability that it contains exactly one ball plus the probability that it contains no balls.

I think that the probability that it contains exactly one ball is $k/n$.

I cannot continue. Any helps? Thanks.

Best Answer

Assuming you have 1., you can immediately get 3.: these are complementary events.

To answer 1., observe that for this even to happen, you first need to place the first ball into any bin; then the second into any of the remaining $n-1$ bins; then the third into any of the remaining $n-2$ bins; etc. So your probability is $$ \mathbb{P}\{\text{no collision}\} = 1\cdot\frac{n-1}{n}\cdot\frac{n-2}{n}\cdots\cdot\frac{n-(k-1)}{n} = \prod_{\ell=0}^{k-1} \frac{n-\ell}{n} = \frac{n!}{n^k (n-k)!} $$ Sanity check: for $k=1$, you get $1$.

Now, to answer 2. Your event corresponds to the union of $n$ disjoint events (namely: "all balls in bin #1", "all bins in bin #2", ..., "all balls in bin #n"). The probability of each of these events is exactly $$ \left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^k = \frac{1}{n^k} $$ since the $k$ balls are placed independently. So the overall probability is $n\cdot \frac{1}{n^k} = \frac{1}{n^{k-1}}$. (again, for $k=1$, you do get $1$, as expected).