[Math] Principle of transmissibility of forces

mathematical physics

My textbook states this principle as follows

" The conditions of equilibrium or of motion of a rigid body will remain unchanged if a force acting at a given point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of the same magnitude and same direction, but acting at a different point, provided that the two forces have the same line of action"

My question is as follows:

Case 1:
Assume an unconstrained rigid disc lying on a smooth horizontal surface such that its centre is at the origin of the coordinate system and z axis perpendicular to the horizontal plane. Now, apply two equal and unlike forces at (0,-1) and (0,1) parallel to x-axis so that they form a couple which will induce rotation about origin.

Case 2:
Now, move the two forces along their lines of action such that the two equal and unlike forces now act at (1,1) and (1,-1) respectively. Clearly the forces now induce a rotation about the point (1,0).

How can the above two cases be equivalent. The motion of rigid body does change in the above scenario. But the principle of transmissibility of forces states that the motion of rigid body remains unchanged.

I know that I am missing something obvious. I would be happy if someone could point it out.

Reference book: Vector Mechanics for Engineers by Beer and Johnston

Best Answer

The above two cases are equivalent, we know that due to the couple, the disc would be at equilibrium. The torque about the center, would also be same because it is given by $\tau = F \times R = FRsin(\theta)$ and if $R$ has changed, so has the $sin(\theta)$, you will take components of the force perpendicular to the radius and the torque would remain as $R$ will become $\sqrt{2}$ and $sin(\theta)$ will become $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$

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