Prime-Counting Function – Evaluation Methods

prime numbersriemann-zeta

According to Riemann (I think) the (exact) prime counting function is given by:
$$
\pi(x) = \operatorname{R}(x^1) – \sum_{\rho}\operatorname{R}(x^{\rho}) \tag{1}
$$

with $ \operatorname{R}(z) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{ \mu (n)}{n} \operatorname{li}(z^{1/n})$ and $\rho$ running over all the zeros of the $\zeta$ function.

Why isn't this function used in general to calculate $\pi(x)$? Shouldn't it be a great approximation if many zeros of the $\zeta$ function are used? Probably nowadays there are many zeros known? Until now I thought $\pi(x)$ is a very "hard" function, because the distribution of the primes is quite hard, but this explicit formula does not look that hard.

Thank you.

Best Answer

I don't know a formal proof of the identity $$\pi(x) = \operatorname{R}(x^1) - \sum_{\rho}\operatorname{R}(x^{\rho}) \tag{1}$$ either but the way this identity was obtained is pretty clear and in fact "hinted" in Riemann's famous paper (cf the german original and english translation linked at the right).
The missing part appears to be proof of the convergence of the series over $\rho$ (supposing the non-trivial zeros sorted by increasing distance to the real axis).

The idea for the derivation (not proof !) is to start with von Mangoldt's proof that (cf Edwards' book p.$48$) : $$\tag{2}f^*(x)=\operatorname{li}(x)-\sum_{\rho} \operatorname{li}(x^{\rho}),\quad(x>1)$$ (notation: $f$ may be replaced by $J$ or $\Pi$ or (confusingly) $\pi$ and $f^*$ appear as $f_0$)
with $\ \displaystyle\operatorname{li}(x):=\int_2^x \frac{dt}{\log\,t}\,$ (Riemann's variant of the logarithmic integral)
and with $\ \displaystyle f^*(x):=\sum_{p^k\le x}^{*}\frac 1k$ (the $^*$ means that the last term $\dfrac 1k$ must be replaced by $\dfrac 12\dfrac 1k\;$ if $p^k=x$)

linked to the prime-counting function $\ \displaystyle\pi^*(x):=\sum_{p\le x}^{*}1\ $ by $\ \displaystyle f^*(x)=\sum_{k>0} \frac{\pi^{*}\bigl(x^{1/k}\bigr)}k\qquad (3)$

In fact we need only to apply the Möbius inversion formula $\ \displaystyle\pi^{*}(x):=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\mu(k)}k f^*\bigl(x^{1/k}\bigr)\ $ to $(2)$ to get (with questionable convergence...) : $$\tag{4}\boxed{\displaystyle\pi^*(x)=R(x)-\sum_{\rho} R(x^{\rho})},\quad(x>1)$$ Where Riemann's $\,\displaystyle R(x):=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\mu(k)}k \operatorname{li}\bigl(x^{1/k}\bigr)\,$ may be written as a Gram series (this part is an edit of my more complete derivation).

$$-$$

Back to your question "Why isn't this function used in general to calculate $\pi(x)$?". In fact it was used and in a rather successful ways as showed here with some references and the history by Büthe here. Note that $(1)$ had sometimes to be replaced by more effective variants :

Following animation used $(1)$ with increasing number of zeros to generate $\pi(x)$ : animation

(I created it for Matthew Watkins' neat page " 'encoding' of the distribution of prime numbers by the nontrivial zeros of the Riemann zeta function")

It is important to understand that $\;\displaystyle R(x)-\sum_{\rho\ \text{real zero}}R(x^{\rho})$ is the initial smooth part. Without the non trivial zeros you would observe no steps at all! But for the steps to be visible you need enough zeros (see for example p.$12$ of Platt who used nearly $70$ billions zeros to compute $\pi(10^{24})$ and a comparison with the combinatorial methods used by Oliveira e Silva).

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