L^1 Convergence – Pointwise Convergence and Convergence of Integrals Implies L^1 Convergence

functional-analysismeasure-theory

From Donald Cohn's Measure Theory, section 2.4, exercise 10.

Let $(X, A, \mu)$ be a measure space, and let $f$ and $f_1, f_2, \dots$ be non-negative functions that belong to $L^1(X, A, \mu, R)$ and satisfy

(i) $\{f_n\}_n$ converges to $f$ almost everywhere;

(ii) $\int fd\mu = \lim_n\int f_nd\mu$.

Show that $\lim_n\int |f_n – f|d\mu = 0$.

I let $f_n = 1/n$ on $[n, n+1]$ and $0$ elsewhere, and let $f=0$, then all the convergence theorems in that section (dominated convergence, and monotone convergence) failed.

Best Answer

Hint:

Fatou's Lemma yields $$ 2\int f = \int \liminf_{n\to\infty} \left ( f_n + f - |f_n - f| \right ) \le \int f + \int f + \liminf_{n\to\infty} \left ( - \int |f_n - f| \right ). $$

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