[Math] [Paradox]How to Godel prove that Godel sentence is unprovable but true, if such proof itself proves that Godel sentence is true

incompletenessintuitionlogicmeta-math

Isn't the proof that Godel sentence is unprovable but true a proof itself that Godel sentence is true?

Godel in the preface of his proof remarked:

“From the remark that [the unprovable statement] asserts its own unprovability, it follows at once that [the unprovable statement] is correct, since [the unprovable statement] is certainly unprovable (because undecidable). So the proposition which is undecidable in the system PM yet turns out to be decided by meta-mathematical considerations.”

My question may be the example of what Godel called "meta-mathematical considerations". It is hard to understand that the proposition which is undecidable in mathematics can be decided by meta-mathematics. What could be the explanation for this apparent paradox?

Best Answer

Godel produces a sentence $\varphi$. What Godel proves is that - assuming $PA$ is consistent - $\varphi$ is true but not provable in $PA$. (I'm assuming the theory we're looking at is "PA," here - but we can of course replace $PA$ with any sufficiently strong recursively axiomatized theory, such as PM, ZFC, NF, ...)

This proof goes through perfectly inside the theory $PA$. There's no contradiction, though, because - in order to conclude that $\varphi$ is true - $PA$ would have to know that $PA$ is consistent. So, instead of a paradox, we get Godel's second incompleteness theorem: that, if $PA$ is consistent, $PA$ doesn't prove "$PA$ is consistent."


I'm being ahistorical here - in fact, what Godel proved was slightly weaker, and Rosser was the one who brought the hypothesis down to "$PA$ is consistent" - but this is the meat of the situation.

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