There is the standard proof using $$\det(A)=\det( A^{T} ) = \det(-A)=(-1)^n \det(A)$$
I would like a proof that avoids this. Specifically, there is the proof that for $A$ a $\bf{real} $ matrix, the transpose is the same as the adjoint, which gives (using the complex inner product) $\lambda \|x\|^2 =\langle Ax, x \rangle= \langle x, -Ax \rangle=-\overline{\lambda } \|x\|^{2}$, so any eigenvalue is purely imaginary. Then we conclude that, since any odd-dimensional real matrix has a real eigenvalue, that eigenvalue must be zero. This argument doesn't work for a general complex skew-symmetric matrix. Is there something I'm missing, is there a way to modify this argument to get that zero is an eigenvalue for the complex case? Also, can somebody please give a geometric reason why odd-dimensional skew-symmetric matrices have zero determinant (equiv., a zero eigenvalue)?
Thanks!
Best Answer
Here is a "geometric" argument for the real case. The skew-symmetric condition is equivalent to $\langle Av, v\rangle =0$ for all vectors $v$. Geometrically, $Av$ is orthogonal to $v$. If $Av$ is never zero for $v\ne 0$, then we get a nonvanishing vector field on the unit sphere, contradicting the Hairy Ball theorem.