[Math] Must antisymmetric relation also be irreflexive

relations

On Polish Wikipedia article on binary relations one can find the following statement: "a relation is antisymmetric iif it is irreflexive and transitive".

Is it correct? Does a given relation have to be irreflexive to be antisymmetric?

As far as I understand a relation ($R \subseteq A \times A$) is irreflexive iif:
$$\forall_{x \in A}: \lnot (x R x) $$
and antisymmetric iff:
$$\forall_{x, y \in A}: (xRy) \land (yRx) \rightarrow x = y$$
As so, if we define relations over the set $A = \{1, 2, 3, 4\}$ then both following relations should be antisymmetric:
$$
R_1 = \{ (2,1), (3,1), (3,2), (4,1), (4,2), (4,3) \}\\
R_2 = \{ (1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (3,3), (3,4), (4,4) \}
$$
although only $R_1$ is also irreflexive ($R_2$ is actually reflexive).

Do I miss something?

Best Answer

No, an antisymmetric relation doesn't have to be irreflexive. However, if a relation $R$ is both transitive and irreflexive, then it is automatically antisymmetric. Here is the reason:

Say we have $(a,b)\in R$. Then, because of transitivity, if we also have $(b,a)\in R$, we must have $(a,a)\in R$, which breaks irreflexivity. Therefore we can never have both $(a,b)$ and $(b,a)$ in $R$, which means that the statement "If $(a,b)\in R$ and $(b,a)\in R$, then $a=b$" is vacuously satisfied, and $R$ is thus antisymmetric.