I wanted to find the inverse Fourier transform of $\tilde f(k)=\frac{1}{k}\sin(k)$. I found a similar question here: Calculating the Inverse Fourier Transform of $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}k}\sin k$, but I have been asked to do this using contour integration (which isn't mentioned in the answers to that question). My problem with this is if you take $\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \tilde f(k) e^{ikx} dk$, then this has no poles, and so nowhere to calculate a residue. Normally I'd just use a semi-circular contour, however in this case I don't think that the integral along the arc would go to $0$. Whichever contour I choose, the total integral along that contour will be $0$. This would mean that I'd get something like "the integral I want" + "something extra which isn't $0$" $= 0$. I think my main problem is finding this "something extra" – what contour should I use? Could I use the expected answer somehow to help choose that?
[Math] Method to find inverse Fourier transform of $\frac{1}{k} \sin(k)$
fourier analysisfourier transform
Related Solutions
I write the Fourier transform as
$$\hat{f}(k) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \: \frac{\sin{x}}{x} e^{i k x} $$
Consider, rather, the integral
$$ \frac{1}{i 2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \: \frac{e^{i x}-e^{-i x}}{x} e^{i k x} $$
$$ = \frac{1}{i 2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \: \frac{e^{i (1+k) x}}{x} - \frac{1}{i 2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \: \frac{e^{-i (1-k) x}}{x} $$
Consider the following integral corresponding to the first integral:
$$\oint_C dz \: \frac{e^{i (1+k) z}}{z} $$
where $C$ is the contour defined in the illustration below:
This integral is zero because there are no poles contained within the contour. Write the integral over the various pieces of the contour:
$$\int_{C_R} dz \: \frac{e^{i (1+k)z}}{z} + \int_{C_r} dz \: \frac{e^{i (1+k) z}}{z} + \int_{-R}^{-r} dx \: \frac{e^{i (1+k) x}}{x} + \int_{r}^{R} dx \: \frac{e^{i (1+k) x}}{x} $$
Consider the first part of this integral about $C_R$, the large semicircle of radius $R$:
$$\int_{C_R} dz \: \frac{e^{i (1+k)z}}{z} = i \int_0^{\pi} d \theta e^{i (1+k) R (\cos{\theta} + i \sin{\theta})} $$
$$ = i \int_0^{\pi} d \theta e^{i (1+k) R \cos{\theta}} e^{-(1+k) R \sin{\theta}} $$
By Jordan's lemma, this integral vanishes as $R \rightarrow \infty$ when $1+k > 0$. On the other hand,
$$ \int_{C_r} dz \: \frac{e^{i (1+k) z}}{z} = i \int_{\pi}^0 d \phi \: e^{i (1+k) r e^{i \phi}} $$
This integral takes the value $-i \pi$ as $r \rightarrow 0$. We may then say that
$$\begin{align} & \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \: \frac{e^{i (1+k) x}}{x} = i \pi & 1+k > 0\\ \end{align}$$
When $1+k < 0$, Jordan's lemma does not apply, and we need to use another contour. A contour for which Jordan's lemma does apply is one flipped about the $\Re{z}=x$ axis. By using similar steps as above, it is straightforward to show that
$$\begin{align} & \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \: \frac{e^{i (1+k) x}}{x} = -i \pi & 1+k < 0\\ \end{align}$$
Using a similar analysis as above, we find that
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \: \frac{e^{-i (1-k) x}}{x} = \begin{cases} -i \pi & 1-k < 0 \\ i \pi & 1-k >0 \\ \end{cases} $$
We may now say that
$$\hat{f}(k) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \: \frac{\sin{x}}{x} e^{i k x} = \begin{cases} \pi & |k| < 1 \\ 0 & |k| > 1 \\ \end{cases} $$
To translate to your definition of the FT, divide the RHS by $\sqrt{2 \pi}$.
Perhaps what the hint means is $$ f(x)=\frac{-1}{2\pi\mathrm{i}}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\int_{-\infty}^\infty dk\frac{\sin k}{k^2}e^{-\mathrm{i}kx}=\frac{1}{2\pi}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\int_{-\infty}^\infty dk\frac{\sin k}{k^2}\sin(kx)\ , $$ where I use the fact that $e^{-\mathrm{i}kx}=\cos (kx)-\mathrm{i}\sin (k x)$ and the integrand with $\cos$ is odd (and thus gives a zero integral). The remaining integrand is now even, so $$ f(x)=\frac{2}{2\pi}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\int_{0}^\infty dk\frac{\sin k}{k^2}\sin(kx)\ . $$ The integral can be evaluated to be $\pi x/2$ for $|x|<1$, and a constant for $|x|>1$. Therefore, by taking the derivative w.r.t. $x$, you get back what you started with.
Best Answer
Note that we can write
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{\sin(k)}{k}e^{ikx}\,dk=\frac{1}{2i}\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{e^{ik}-e^{-ik}}{k}e^{ikx}\,dk \tag1$$
Observe that for each of the principal value integrals
$$I_{\pm}(x)=\text{PV}\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{e^{\pm ik}}{k}e^{ikx}\,dk\right)=\text{PV}\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{e^{ ik(x\pm 1)}}{k}\,dk\right)$$
the integrand has a pole at $k=0$. To evaluate these integrals, we analyze the contour integrals
$$\begin{align} \oint_{C}\frac{e^{iz(x\pm 1)}}{z}\,dz&=\int_{-R}^{-\epsilon} \frac{e^{ik(x\pm 1)}}{k}\,dk+\int_{\epsilon}^{R} \frac{e^{ik(x\pm 1)}}{k}\,dk\\\\ &+\int_{\text{sgn}(x\pm 1)\pi}^0 \frac{e^{i\epsilon e^{i\phi}}}{\epsilon e^{i\phi}}\,i\epsilon e^{i\phi}\,d\phi\\\\ &+\int_0^{\text{sgn}(x\pm 1)\pi}\frac{e^{i R e^{i\phi}}}{R e^{i\phi}}\,iR e^{i\phi}\,d\phi \tag 2 \end{align}$$
As $R\to \infty$, the last integral on the right-hand side of $(2)$ tends to $0$. As $\epsilon\to 0$, the third integral on the right-hand side of $(2)$ tends to $-\text{sgn}(x\pm 1)\pi$. Therefore, we have
$$\text{PV}\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{e^{ ik(x+ 1)}-e^{ik(x-1)}}{k}\,dk\right)=\text{sgn}(x+1)\pi-\text{sgn}(x-1)\pi=\begin{cases}2\pi &,|x|<1\\\\0&,|x|>1\\\\\pi&,|x|=1\end{cases} \tag 3$$
Substituting $(3)$ into $(1)$ yields
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{\sin(k)}{k}e^{ikx}\,dk=\begin{cases}\pi &,|x|<1\\\\0&,|x|>1\\\\\pi/2&,|x|=1\end{cases} $$