[Math] Mean Value Property of Harmonic Functions

analysisharmonic functionspartial differential equations

I can't prove this theorem:

"Let $\Omega$ is a bounded domain, $u\in C^2(\Omega)$ satisfy $\Delta u=0(\geq0,\leq0)$, then for any ball $B=B_R(y)\subset \subset \Omega$, we have

$$u(y)=(\leq,\geq)\frac{1}{n\omega_nR^{n-1}}\int_{\partial B}u\ ds$$

$$u(y)=(\leq,\geq)\frac{1}{\omega_nR^n}\int_{B}u\ dx$$

Thanks

Best Answer

Here's a hint to get you started:

Define $A(r) = \int_{\partial B(y,r)} u(x) \, dx$, and show that $A(r)$ is constant by differentiating with respect to $r$, and showing that the derivative is zero by using the divergence theorem to replace the integrand with a $\Delta u$.

For the subharmonic and superharmonic cases, the same technique leads to $A(r)$ increasing and decreasing, respectively.