[Math] $\mathbb{Z}$ and $\mathbb{Q}$ are not homeomorphic
general-topology
Can anyone explain me why $\mathbb{Z}$ and $\mathbb{Q}$ are not homeomorphic?
Thanks.
Best Answer
$\mathbb{Z}$ is discrete (meaning that every subset is open), while $\mathbb{Q}$ has no isolated points (meaning that no singleton set is open; in fact, no finite set is open).
Because when you merge many points into a single one, you do not have a bijection; a homeomorphism is a continuous map with a continuous inverse, and a non-bijective map cannot have a (two-sided) inverse.
Besides, if this operation was a homeomorphism, then its inverse --tearing a circle to turn it into a torus would be a homeomorphism.
Hint. If $f \colon \def\R{\mathbf R}\R \to \R^2$ were a homeomorphism, what does this imply for the restriction $f\colon \R \setminus \{a\} \to \R^2 \setminus\{f(a)\}$?
Best Answer
$\mathbb{Z}$ is discrete (meaning that every subset is open), while $\mathbb{Q}$ has no isolated points (meaning that no singleton set is open; in fact, no finite set is open).