[Math] Martingale Strong Law of Large Numbers

martingalesprobability theory

Consider a Probability Space $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},P)$

Let $\{X_n\}$ be a Sequence of Random variables such that $X_n \in L^2 \; \; \forall n$ and $$\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\frac{E[X_j^2]}{j^2} < \infty $$

Consider the Natural Filtration $\mathcal{F}_n = \sigma(X_1,…,X_n)$

Assume $E[X_n|\mathcal{F}_{n-1}] = 0$

Consider $S_n = \sum_{j=1}^n X_j $ . Show that $$ \frac{S_n}{n} \xrightarrow{A.S} 0 $$

Thoughts :

If we set $Y_o = 0 $ and $Y_n = \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{X_j}{j}$

Then $\{Y_n\}$ is a Martingale with respect to the Filtration.

If we can show that $Y_n$ converges almost surely to a finite limit then Kroneckers Lemma implies the result.

My goal here is to obviously use the Martingale Convergence theorem but I'm having a small problem.

I tryed to argue that $Y_n$ is $L^1$ Bounded because $$ E[|Y_n|] \leq \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{E[|X_j|]}{j} \leq \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{E[X^2]}{j^2} $$

This would prove the result if it were true. However I only know for sure that $$ \|\frac{|X_j|}{j} \|_{L^1} \leq \|\frac{|X_j|}{j} \|_{L^2} $$

This does not neccesarily imply what I used above.

How do I fix this?

Best Answer

Since the increments of a martingale are orthogonal, the following equality holds: $$\mathbb E\left[Y_n^2\right] =\sum_{j=1} ^n\frac{1}{j^2}\mathbb E\left[X_j^2\right],$$ hence the sequence $\left(Y_n\right)_{n\geqslant 1}$ is an $\mathbb L^2$-bounded martingale.

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