I know Maclaurin series for sin(x) is $$\sum_{n>0}(-1)^n\frac{x^{(2n+1)}}{(2n+1)!}$$
so I can say cos(x)= $$\sum_{n>0}\frac{d}{dx}(-1)^n\frac{x^{(2n+1)}}{(2n+1)!}$$
$$=\sum_{n>1}(-1)^n\frac{x^{(2n)}}{(2n)!} $$
but my text says that $$cos(x)=\sum_{n>0}(-1)^n\frac{x^{(2n)}}{(2n)!}$$
Can somebody explain what I did wrong?
Thank you
[Math] Maclaurin series of cos(x) using sin(x)
calculustaylor expansion
Best Answer
Just to move this from the comments to an answer (and to respond to the followup), when we differentiate the series
$\sin{x} = \sum_{n \geq 0} (-1)^n \frac{x^{(2n+1)}}{(2n+1!)} = x - \frac{x^3}{3} + \dots $
we get
$\cos{x} = \sum_{n \geq 0} (-1)^n \frac{x^{(2n)}}{(2n!)} = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2} + \dots $
We don't have to increase the lower bounds because there is no constant term in the series for $\sin{x}$ that vanishes. If you had a series that looked like
$1 + x^2 + x^4 + \dots = \sum_{n>0} x^{2n-2}$
we could chose to increase the bounds because the first term vanishes when we differentiate, and we get
$0 + 2x + 4x^3 + \dots = \sum_{n>1}(2n-2)x^{2n-3}$
though note you could leave the bounds as they were and get the same series. In general, I recommed writing out the first few terms in the series so you can get a better idea of what happens as you manipulate it.