[Math] Limit of measurable functions is measurable

analysisgeneral-topologymeasure-theorymetric-spacesreal-analysis

Suppose $(\Omega, \cal F)$ is a measurable space and $(X, \mathcal B_X)$ is a topological space with its Borel sigma algebra.

If $f_n: \Omega \to X$ is a sequence of $(\cal F , B$$_X)$-measurable functions and if $f_n \to f$ pointwise, then is it true that $f$ is $(\cal F , B$$_X)$-measurable?

Of course, we know it is true if $X = \Bbb R$ with the usual topology. This is just a standard result in real analysis which can be proved easily using the order structure of $\Bbb R$.

I am more interested in what happens when $X$ is not some Euclidean Space.

I claim it is still true for metrizable $X$. Indeed, supposes $d$ induces the topology of $X$, and $C \subset X$ is closed. For $\varepsilon >0$, let $C_{\varepsilon} = \{x \in X: d(x,C) < \varepsilon \}$, which is open. Then $$f^{-1}(C) = \bigcap_{n \in \Bbb N} \bigcup_{N \in \Bbb N} \bigcap_{ k \geq N} f_k^{-1}\big(C_{2^{-n}}\big)$$ which is in $\cal F$. Since preimages of closed sets are in $\cal F$, it easily follows $f$ is $(\cal F, B$$_X)$-measurable. I guess the crucial thing here was that any closed set in a metrizable space is $G_{\delta}$.

Does the result still hold for any first countable Hausdorff space? What about uniformizable spaces? I guess the answer would probably be no if $X$ is not Hausdorff since the limit function wouldn't necessarily be unique.

I doubt this would be a useful thing to know, but I'm curious nonetheless.

Best Answer

To me it seems that there are two crucial factors for your proof. First is the space being regular, by which I mean just that any closed set and an outside point can be separated by disjoint neighbourhoods, without requiring $X$ to be $T_0$. Second, that any closed set has a countable neighbourhood base.

Given the above assumptions, we can use the same argument. If $C\subseteq X$ is closed, let $\{V_j\}_{j\in\mathbb{N}} \subseteq \mathcal{T}$ be its neighbourhood base. Now we prove that: $$ f^{-1}(C)=\bigcap_{j\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcup_{k\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcap_{n\geq k}f_n^{-1}(V_j) $$

If $\omega\in f^{-1}(C)$, then $\{f_n(\omega)\}$ is eventually in any neighbourhood of $C$. Hence for all $j\in \mathbb{N}$, there exists $k_j \in \mathbb{N}$, such that $$\omega\in \bigcap_{n\geq k_j}f_n^{-1}(V_j)$$ implying that $\displaystyle{\omega\in \bigcup_{k\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcap_{n\geq k}f_n^{-1}(V_j)}$. $\;$ Hence we obtain:$\;$ $\displaystyle{\omega\in \bigcap_{j\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcup_{k\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcap_{n\geq k}f_n^{-1}(V_j)}$

Conversely, if $\displaystyle{\omega\in \bigcap_{j\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcup_{k\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcap_{n\geq k}f_n^{-1}(V_j)}$, then for each $j\in\mathbb{N}$: $\;\displaystyle{\omega\in \bigcap_{n\geq k_j}f_n^{-1}(V_j)}$ for some $k_j\in\mathbb{N}$, meaning that $\{f_n(\omega)\}$ is eventually in $V_j$. Suppose now that $f(\omega)\in C^c$ and let $W_1$ and $W_2$ be some neighbourhoods of $\omega$ and $C$ respectively. Since there exists some $s\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $C\subseteq V_s \subseteq W_2$ and since $f(\omega)$ is a limit of $\{f_n(\omega)\}$, it follows that eventually $\{f_n(\omega)\}$ is in both $W_1$ and $W_2$, meaning that $W_1 \cap W_2 \neq \varnothing$. Since the neighbourhoods are arbitrary, it means that $f(\omega)$ cannot be separated from $C$, contradicting regularity. Therefore $f(\omega)$ must be in $C$.

Interestingly, the above assumptions do not imply that $X$ is Hausdorff, unless it also happens to be $T_0$, in which case the countability condition will also be stronger than first countability.

EDIT (Weaker assumption)==========================================

Let $\mathcal{B}_X$ be the Borel sigma-algebra of a topological space $(X,\mathcal{T})$. In what follows $\varphi(\mathscr{C})$ denotes the filter generated by a subbase $\mathscr{C} \subset \mathcal{P}(X)$ and $\mathscr{N}(A)$ - the neighbourhood filter of a subset $A$

Assumptions:

  • $\mathcal{T}$ is regular (not assuming $T_0$)
  • For any nonempty closed $C \subseteq X$ there exists $\{V_j\}_{j\in\mathbb{N}} \subseteq \mathscr{N}(C) \cap \mathcal{B}_X$, such that any convergent filter containing $\{V_j : j\in\mathbb{N}\}$ contains $\mathscr{N}(C)$

Note that such $\{V_j : j\in\mathbb{N}\}$ is necessarily a filter subbase, since it has the finite intersection property, so there do exist filters that contain it. However it is not necessarily a base for $\mathscr{N}(C)$.

As before, since each $V_j$ is a neighbourhood of $C$, we have $$f^{-1}(C) \subseteq \bigcap_{j\in\mathbb{N}} \bigcup_{k\in\mathbb{N}} \bigcap_{n\geq k} f^{-1}_n(V_j)$$

On the other hand $$\omega \in \bigcap_{j\in\mathbb{N}} \bigcup_{k\in\mathbb{N}} \bigcap_{n\geq k} f^{-1}_n(V_j) \implies \{f_n(\omega)\} \text{ is eventually in each }V_j \implies$$ $$\implies \mathscr{F}_\omega =: \varphi \Big( \Big\{ \{f_n(\omega) : n\geq k\} : k\in\mathbb{N}\Big\} \Big) \supseteq \{V_j : j\in\mathbb{N}\} \implies$$ $$\implies \mathscr{F}_\omega \supseteq \mathscr{N}(C) \quad \text{ since } \mathscr{F}_\omega \text{ is convergent}$$ $$\implies \forall \quad U\in\mathscr{N}(C), W\in\mathscr{N}(f(\omega)): \Big( \{f_n\} \text{ is eventually in } U\cap W \implies U \cap W \neq \varnothing \Big)$$ $$\implies f(\omega) \in C \quad \text{by regularity assumption}$$

$$\\$$

The sets $\{C_{2^{-n}}\}$ in Shalop's proof satisfy the second assumption (which can be verified using continuity of $d(\cdot, C)$), while not necessarily being a neighbourhood base at $C$.

Related Question