[Math] Lebesgue measure of closed ball and open ball are the same.

analysislebesgue-integrallebesgue-measuremeasure-theoryreal-analysis

Recently, I have been studying the Lebesgue measure, and I have learned some properties of this measure such as regularity,translation-invariance and relation with linear transformations.

Now, I want to verify whether it can be called a volume function.

Let $B(0,1)$ and $\overline{B(0,1)}$ be unit open and closed balls respectively in $\mathbb{R}^n$.

Then how do i prove that $m(B(0,1))=m(\overline{B(0,1)}$?

Moreover, how do I prove that $m(B(0,1))=\pi$ in $2$-dimensional and $\frac{4\pi}{3}$ in $3$-dimensional?(I guess this is a hard one to prove)

Many thanks in advance 🙂

Best Answer

Note that $$ B(0,1)\subset \overline{B}(0,1)\subset B(0,1+\delta)=(1+\delta)B(0,1) $$ for all $\delta>0$, and hence $$ m(B(0,1))\le m(\overline{B}(0,1))\le m(B(0,1+\delta))=(1+\delta)^nm(B(0,1)). $$