[Math] Landau’s Theorem, Dirichlet Series

analytic-number-theorycomplex-analysisdirichlet-series

An important theorem of Landau states that, given a Dirichlet Series f(s) with coefficients $a_n$ then

If $a_n\geq0$ for all values of n, the real point of the line of convergence is a singularity of f(s).

A particular example being $\zeta(s)$, which has coefficients constantly equal to 1 and thus has a singularity on $s=1$.

But if we consider the D.S.
$$f(s)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n^s\log^2{}n} $$

it clearly has non-negative Dirichlet coeffiecients $(1/\log^2{}n\geq0)$ and abscissa of convergence equal to 1 with the series
$$f(1)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n\log^2{}n} $$
being convergent.

Doesn't this contrast with Landau's theorem mentioned above? What am I missing here?

Best Answer

I suppose the meaning of singularity here is not, that $f(1)=\infty$ but rather just that f is not holomorphic at $1$. Naively differentiating $f$ leads to

$$f'(s)=-\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n^s\log(n)},$$

which doesn't converge at $1$ anymore.

Edit: Actually for $Re(s)>1$ the derivative definitely has the above form. Therefore $f'(1+t)\to \infty$ for $t\to 0$ so $f$ cannot be continuously differentiable at $1$, therefore it is also not holomorphic.

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