[Math] Jordan Normal Form and eigenvalue 0

jordan-normal-formlinear algebraordinary differential equationssoft-question

I understand the processes of putting a matrix into Jordan normal form and forming the transformation matrix associated to "diagonalizing" the matrix. So here's my question:

Why is it that when you have an eigenvalue x=0 with algebraic multiplicity greater than 1, that you don't put a 1 in the superdiagonal of the JNF matrix but when the eigenvalue is non-zero and satisfies the same properties, we put a 1 in the superdiagonal of the Jordan normal form?

My professor posted solutions to an assignment involving finding a matrix exponential, but the JNF of a matrix had eigenvalue x=0 with algebraic multiplicity of 3,yet had no entries of 1 along the superdiagonal.

In advance, I would like to thank you for your help.

Best Answer

We have a single eigenvalue of $\lambda_1 = 1$ and a triple eigenvalue of $\lambda_{2,3,4} = 0$.

For $\lambda=0$, we need to find three linearly independent eigenvectors and can just use the null space of $A$ for this. We have:

$$NS(A) = NS \left(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 & 0\end{bmatrix}\right)$$

This produces $v_{2,3,4} = (0,0,0,1), (0,0,1,0), (0,1,0,0)$ as three linearly independent eigenvectors, thus this matrix is diagonalizable and we can write the Jordan block using the eigenvalues down the main diagonal as:

$$J = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}$$