[Math] Is the function $f(z)=xy+iy$ analytic

complex-analysis

$f(z)=xy+iy$

$f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$

$u=xy$, $v=y$

$\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=y$, $\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}=0$

$\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=x$, $\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}=1$

We see that $\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} \ne \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}$, except for $y=1$

Also, $\frac{\partial u}{\partial y} \ne -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}$, except for $x=0$

The Cauchy-Riemann equations are not satisfied anywhere in the z-plane except at the point $x=0$, $y=1$, i.e. $z=i$

$f^{'}(z)=\lim_{\delta z-> 0}\frac{f(z+\delta z)-f(z)}{\delta z}$

Best Answer

The Cauchy-Riemann equations must hold everywhere for a function to be analytic, and they fail here. Your computations are correct and show that the equations do not hold in any non-empty open subset of $\mathbb{C}$, so the function is not analytic anywhere.

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