[Math] Is f(x,y) integrable? Question 3-7 from Spivak’s Calculus on Manifolds

integrationmultivariable-calculusreal-analysisriemann-integration

I am trying to work my through the exercises in Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds. I am currently working on the exercises in Chapter 3 which deals with Integration. I am having trouble with the following question:

Let:

\begin{equation}
f(x,y)=\begin{cases}
0, & \text{if $x$ is irrational}.\\
0, & \text{if $x$ is rational, $y$ is irrational}. \\
1/q, & \text{if $x$ is rational, $y=p/q$ in lowest terms}.
\end{cases}
\end{equation}

Show that $f$ is integrable on $A = [0,1] \times [0,1]$ and $\int_A f = 0$.

I was thinking of trying to prove that this set is Jordan Measurable and that it's Jordan measure is zero and that it is therefore Riemann Integrable but I am not sure how to do this or if it is even the best way to solve this problem.

If I could show that $f$ is continuous on $A$ up to a set of Jordan Measure $0$, then $f$ would be integrable but again, I'm not sure I can do this or if its even appropriate for this problem.

Any assistance that anyone could provide would be greatly appreciated.

Thank you.

Best Answer

Hint: For any partition $P$ of $A$ the lower sum $L(P,f) = 0$ since any rectangle must contain a point $(x,y)$ where $x$ is irrational and $f(x,y) = 0.$ Next show that the upper sum $U(P,f)$ can be arbitrarily close to zero if the partition is sufficiently fine. Just extend the proof for the one-dimensional case given here.

Aside

This function is peculiar in that it is Riemann integrable on $[0,1]^2$, but for fixed rational $y$, the function $f(\cdot,y)$ is a non-Riemann-integrable Dirichlet function and $\int_0^1 f(x,y) \, dx$ does not exist as a Riemann integral.

In this case, the iterated integral

$$\int_0^1 \left(\int_0^1 f(x,y) \, dx \right) \, dy$$

does not exist.

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