[Math] Is an open interval in $\mathbb{R}$ a closed set in $\mathbb{R}^2$ under the standard topology of $\mathbb{R}^n$

general-topology

The standard topology of $\mathbb{R}^n$ is defined:
For any $n\in\mathbb{N}$, let
$$
\mathcal{T}=\{U\subset\mathbb{R}^n|\ \text{if}\ x\in U\ \text{then}\ \exists\epsilon>0\ni B_\epsilon(x)\subset U\}.
$$
In $\mathbb{R}^2$, a 1-dimensional open interval on say the $y$-axis is a subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$, however for a point $y$ in this interval there is no epsilon ball around $y$ which is a subset of the interval since the epsilon ball will contain points in the plane that aren't even on the $y$-axis. I've convinced myself that this is the case according to my understanding of the definitions, but it seems wrong that an open interval in $\mathbb{R}$ would not be closed in $\mathbb{R}^2$.

Best Answer

The set is actually neither open nor closed. (Perhaps these words are a bad choice cause they seem to imply mutual exclusiveness when it is not the case. Sets may be open, closed, both, or neither.)

It is not open for the same reasons you said in your question.

A set is closed if and only if its complement is open. The endpoints of the interval are in the complement of the interval and you can't make a ball around them without including points that are not in the complement. Thus the complement is not open so the interval is not a closed set.

Openness and closedness always depend on the total space. For instance any subset $S\subset \mathbb R^n$ is 'open' when you consider the $S$ as the topological space (and give it the subspace topology) as it must be to satisfy the axiom of topology that says the total space is open.