General Topology – Can a Subset of a Topological Space Induce a Quotient Space?

general-topology

As far as I know, a quotient space of a topological space must be defined wrt an equivalence relation on the topological space.

  1. But then I wonder what the equivalence relation is in the following
    example from Wikipedia:

    In topology, especially algebraic topology, the cone $CX$ of a
    topological space $X$ is the quotient space: $$
    CX = (X \times I)/(X \times \{0\})\, $$ of the product of $X$ with the unit interval $I = [0, 1]$. Intuitively we make $X$ into a
    cylinder and collapse one end of the cylinder to a point.

  2. Is a subset of a topological space able to induce an equivalence
    relation on the topological space, and to induce a quotient space? I know it is true for a subspace
    of a vector space.

Thanks and regards!

Best Answer

Let $X$ be a topological space, and let $A\subseteq X$. $A$ defines the following equivalence relation $\overset{A}\sim$ on $X$: for $x,y\in X$, $x\overset{A}\sim y$ iff either $x=y$, or $\{x,y\}\subseteq A$. The quotient space $X/A$ is defined to be the same as the quotient space $X/\overset{A}\sim$.

Added: To put it a little differently, the partition of $X$ induced by $\overset{A}\sim$ is $$\{A\}\cup\big\{\{x\}:x\in X\setminus A\big\}\;.$$ The topology of of the quotient space is defined as follows: $V\in X/A$ is open iff $\pi^{-1}[V]$ is open in $X$, where $\pi:X\to X/A$ is the obvious quotient map.

As Alex Becker mentions in the comments, this notion of quotient is somewhat different from the notion used when some algebraic structure is present, as in the case of quotients of groups, rings, vector spaces, etc.

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