Q1: The answer is no. If $g''(a)>0$ for some $a\in [0,1],$ then $g''>0$ in a neighborhood of $a$ by the continuity of $g''.$ Hence $g$ is strictly convex in that neighborhood. Similarly, if $g''(a)<0$ for some $a\in [0,1],$ then $g$ is strictly concave in that neighborhood. We're left with the case $f''\equiv 0.$ But this implies $f(x) = ax +b$ on $[0,1],$ hence $f$ is both convex and concave everywhere on $[0,1].$
Added later, in answer to the comment: It's actually possible for a $C^2$ function to have uncountably many inflection points. Suppose $K\subset [0,1]$ is uncountable, compact, and has no interior (the Cantor set is an example). Define
$$f(x)=\begin{cases}d(x,K)\sin (1/d(x,K)),&x\notin K\\ 0,& x\in K\end{cases}$$ Then $f$ is continuous, and $f$ takes on positive and negative values on any interval containing a point of $K.$ Define
$$g(x)=\int_0^x\int_0^t f(s)\,ds\,dt.$$
Then $g\in C^2[0,1]$ and $g''=f.$ It follows that every point of $K$ is an inflection point of $g.$
One property of a differentiable convex function $f:\mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ is that if $a \in \mathbb R^n$ then
$$
f(x) \geq f(a) + \langle \nabla f(a), x-a\rangle
$$
for all $x \in \mathbb R^n$.
It follows that if $\nabla f(a) = 0$ then $a$ is a global minimizer of $f$.
Best Answer
No, this isn't true. Let $\phi(x)$ be a nonnegative smooth "bump" function that is zero except on $(0,1)$ where it is positive. Then $\psi(x) = \sin^2({1 \over x})\phi(x)$ is a smooth nonnegative function (define $\psi(0) = 0$) which has zeroes at $x = {1 \over k\pi}$ for positive integers $k$ but is positive between these zeroes. $\psi(x)$ will still have a local minimum at zero because $\psi(0) = 0$, but because of the humps in $\psi(x)$ between zeroes, a chord connecting $({1 \over k\pi},0)$ to $({1 \over (k +1)\pi},0)$ will lie below the graph. So $\psi(x)$ is not convex.
I should add that if $x_0$ is a local minimum of $f(x)$ such that $f^{(l)}(x_0)$ is nonzero for some $l > 0$, then it will be convex on some interval centered at $x_0$ as long as $f(x)$ is $C^{l+1}$. To see this, note that without loss of generality we may assume $l$ is minimal. By Taylor expanding one gets $$f(x) = {1 \over l!} f^{(l)}(x_0)(x - x_0)^l + O((x - x_0)^{l+1})$$ If $|x - x_0|$ is sufficiently small the remainder term will be dominated by the ${1 \over l!} f^{(l)}(x_0)(x - x_0)^l$ term. Thus the only way a local minimum can occur is if $l$ is even and $f^{(l)}(x_0) > 0$. Next note that the second derivative of $f$ has Taylor expansion given by $${d^2 f \over dx^2} = {1 \over (l-2)!} f^{(l)}(x_0)(x - x_0)^{l-2} + O((x - x_0)^{l-1})$$ The remainder term is domninated by the first term once again, which is nonnegative on an interval containing $x_0$ since $l$ is even and $f^{(l)}(x_0) > 0$. Thus the second derivative of $f$ is nonnegative on this interval and therefore the function is convex there.