[Math] Is $([0,1] \cap \mathbb{Q})^n \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ Jordan or Lebesgue measurable

measure-theoryreal-analysis

Let $M_1:=([0,1] \cap \mathbb{Q})^n \subset \mathbb{R}^n$.

Now I believe it is a lebesgue zero measure, because it is countable as a product of finitely many countable sets.

But I do not know how to show it is ( or is not ) Jordan measurable. I want to see if

$$m_*(M_1)=\sup_{S\subset M_1} m(S) = m^*(M_1)=\inf_{S\supset M_1} m (S)$$

holds.I find this definition over and over again on the web. My problem is, people tend to explain it heuristically, i.e. talk in metaphors what it means for a set to be Jordan measurable, but never actually get down to showing it for some specific example.

How do I find $m_*(M_1)$ and $m^*(M_1)$?

EDIT:

My thoughts so far: I believe it is a Jordan Zero Measure, because:

$m^*(M_1)= |[0,1]^n|$ by definition $ = |(1-0)^n|=1 $ but for the inner measure you use the fact that $\mathbb{Q}$ is dense in $\mathbb{R}$, which tells us basically that the set is a union of single points ( countable ) which makes it countable union of zero Jordan Measures, which makes itself again a zero Jordan measure.

Because the lecture is skipping quite a lot of definitions and explanations I kind of need to puzzle it together, so any help is appreciated at this point!

Best Answer

The inner measure is the supremum of measures of simple subsets of $M_1$. As $M_1$ contains no rectangle at all, we conclude $m_*(M_1)=0$.

The outer measure is the infimum of measures of simple supersets of $M_1$. But any simple set, being a finite union of rectangles must cover $[0,1]^n$ almost completely (i.e., up to lower dimensional faces; this is because the complement of a simple set, relative to the cube, is also simple), and that means must have measure at least $1$. We conclude $m^*(M_1)=1$.


The essential difference to Lebesgue measure is: There, we are allowed to have simple sets made of infinitely many rectangles, which allows us to make their total volume arbitrarily small by picking one of volume $\epsilon\cdot \frac1{n^2}$, say, around the $n$th of our countably many points