[Math] Intuitive understanding of the $BAB^{-1}$ formula for changing basis in linear transformations.

linear algebra

I would please like to have a better understanding on why we use the formula $BAB^{-1}$ when chaning basis on linear transformations. (I have not a complete understanding on this so there are probably errors in my question, please point them out so I can learn more…)

For example:

In $\mathbb{R^3}$
Lets say we have a basis $e = {(e_1, e_2, e_3)}$ and another basis $f = {(f_1, f_2, f_3)}$. We have a change of basis matrix from $f$ to $e$ called $B$ that expresses what $f_1, f_2, f_3$ is in the basis $e$.

We have defined a linear transformation $R_e$ in the basis $e$ with the matrix $A$.

Let's say we have three vectors expressed in the base $f$: $P = \left(
\begin{array}{c}
s\\
t\\
u\\
\end{array}
\right)$

Now we want to apply the linear transformation $R_e = A$ to these vectors:

First we have to change the basis of $P$ which gives us: $BP$. $BP$ is now $P$ expressed in the basis $e$. To apply the linear transformation we now only has to multiply $BP$ with $A$: $ABP$. But according to the formula it should be $BAB^{-1}P$. Where is my thinking incorrect?

Best Answer

Suppose that you have a closed box in Sweden which you wish to be open in Sweden. You only know how to open the box if you are in China. Then

(open box in Sweden) = (go from Sweden to China) THEN (open box in China) THEN (go from China to Sweden)

(note that function composition is written funny in math compared to the English word "THEN.")

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