[Math] Intersection of any family of subfields is itself a subfield

abstract-algebrafield-theory

Prove that the intersection of any family of subfields is itself a subfield.

In the countable case:

Suppose that $\mathscr K$ is a field and consider $(\mathcal K_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}\subset \mathscr K$ a family of subfield of $\mathscr K$ . Let show that $\mathcal K:=\bigcap_{n\in\mathcal N}\mathcal K_n$ is still a field. Let $a\in \mathcal K$. Then for all $n\in\mathbb N$, there is a $b_n\in\mathcal K_n$ such that $a b_n=1$

But I can't conclude.

And if the family is uncountable, how can I do ?

Best Answer

The main point is that operations in subfields coincide with operations in the large field. That's the definition of subfield.

In the particular case of inverses, you use uniqueness:

Let $a\in \mathcal K = \bigcap_{i\in\mathcal I}\mathcal K_i$. Since $\mathcal K_i$ is field, there is $b_i \in \mathcal K_i$ such that $ab_i=1$. Since $\mathscr K$ is a field, there is $b \in \mathscr K$ such that $ab=1$. But then $b=b1=bab_i = 1b_i=b_i$. Thus, $b\in \mathcal K_i$ for all $i$ and so $b\in \mathcal K$.

The proof above works for arbitrary families; it does not depend on the family being countable.

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