While trying to compute $\int_0^TB_t^2\ dB_t$, $B$ being the standard Brownian motion, I got stuck at showing the following.
$$\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}B_{t_i}(B_{t_{i+1}}-B_{t_i})^2 \rightarrow \int_0^TB_t\ dt \quad \text{in} \quad L^2$$
as $mesh(\pi) \rightarrow 0$ where $\pi: 0 = t_0 < t_1 < \ldots < t_n = T$.
Since I have that
$$\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}B_{t_i}(t_{i+1}-t_i) \rightarrow \int_0^TB_t\ dt \quad \text{in} \quad L^2$$
I figured if I can show
$$\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}B_{t_i}(B_{t_{i+1}}-B_{t_i})^2 \rightarrow \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}B_{t_i}(t_{i+1}-t_i) \quad \text{in} \quad L^2$$
I will have the result that I want. It is easy to see that
$$E\left[\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}B_{t_i}(B_{t_{i+1}}-B_{{t_i}})^2\right] = E\left[\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}B_{t_i}(t_{i+1}-t_i)\right]$$
But when I involve square of the difference of the sums to show convergence in $L^2$, things get out of hand (my hand at least). Could someone tell me if I am on the right track up until now? If yes, how do I proceed from this point on? I would appreciate any help/hint.
Best Answer
Steps: