[Math] Integral $\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{1}{x}\sqrt{\frac{1+x}{1-x}} \log \left( \frac{(r-1)x^{2} + sx + 1}{(r-1)x^{2} – sx + 1} \right) \, \mathrm dx$

calculusclosed-formdefinite integralsintegration

Regarding this problem, I conjectured that

$$ I(r, s) = \int_{-1}^{1} \frac{1}{x}\sqrt{\frac{1+x}{1-x}} \log \left( \frac{(r-1)x^{2} + sx + 1}{(r-1)x^{2} – sx + 1} \right) \, \mathrm dx = 4 \pi \operatorname{arccot} \sqrt{ \frac{2r + 2\sqrt{r^{2} – s^{2}}}{s^{2}} – 1}. $$

Though we may try the same technique as in the previous problem, now I'm curious if this generality leads us to a different (and possible a more elegant) proof.

Indeed, I observed that $I(r, 0) = 0$ and

$$\frac{\partial I}{\partial s}(r, s) = \int_{0}^{\infty} \left\{ \frac{2\sqrt{y}}{(r-s)y^{2} + 2(2-r)y + (r+s)}+\frac{2\sqrt{y}}{(r+s)y^{2}+ 2(2-r)y + (r-s)} \right\} \,\mathrm dy, $$

which can be evaluated using standard contour integration technique. But simplifying the residue and integrating them seems still daunting.


EDIT. By applying a series of change of variables, I noticed that the problem is equivalent to prove that

$$ \tilde{I}(\alpha, s) := \int_{-1}^{1} \frac{1}{x}\sqrt{\frac{1+x}{1-x}} \log \left( \frac{ 1 + 2sx \sin\alpha + (s^{2} – \cos^{2}\alpha) x^{2}}{ 1 – 2sx \sin\alpha + (s^{2} – \cos^{2}\alpha) x^{2}} \right) \, \mathrm dx = 4\pi \alpha $$

for $-\frac{\pi}{2} < \alpha < \frac{\pi}{2}$ and $s > 1$. (This is equivalent to the condition that the expression inside the logarithm is positive for all $x \in \Bbb{R}$.)

Another simple observation. once you prove that $\tilde{I}(\alpha, s)$ does not depend on the variable $s$ for $s > 1$, then by suitable limiting process it follows that

$$ \tilde{I}(\alpha, s) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \log \left( \frac{ 1 + 2x \sin\alpha + x^{2}}{ 1 – 2x \sin\alpha + x^{2}} \right) \, \frac{\mathrm dx}{x}, $$

which (I guess) can be calculated by hand. The following graph may also help us understand the behavior of this integral.

enter image description here

Best Answer

So, following the procedure I outlined here, I get for the transformed integral:

$$I(r,s) = \int_0^{\infty} dv \frac{4 s \left(v^2-1\right) \left(v^4-(4 r-6) v^2+1\right)}{v^8+4 \left(2 r-s^2-1\right) v^6 +2 \left(8 r^2-8 r-4 s^2+3\right) v^4 +4 \left(2 r-s^2-1\right) v^2 +1} \log{v} $$

Note that this reduces to the integral in the original problem when $r=3$ and $s=2$. Then we see that the roots of the denominator satisfy the same symmetries as before, so we need only find one root of the form $\rho e^{i \theta}$ where

$$\rho = \sqrt{\frac{r+\sqrt{r^2-s^2}}{2}} + \sqrt{\frac{r+\sqrt{r^2-s^2}}{2}-1}$$

and

$$\theta = \arctan{\sqrt{\frac{2 \left (r+\sqrt{r^2-s^2}\right )}{s^2}-1}}$$

Using the same methodology I derived, I am able to confirm your conjecture.