I have two questions regarding functions regarding linear maps: (Let $X$ and $Y$ be to Banach spaces)
- If $T:X\rightarrow Y$ is injective, then $T^{-1}$ exists, right?
- If $T:X\rightarrow Y$ is injective and $T^{-1}$ well-defined, then $T$ is bijective, right?
Am I right in these questions? Or are there counter-examples?
Thank you for your help!
Best Answer
No, if $T$ is for instance the inclusion of a proper subspace then $T$ is injective but not surjective. The inverse $T^{-1}$ cannot be well-defined unless $T$ is also surjective.
In other words, $T^{-1}$ is well-defined if and only if $T$ is injective and surjective. By the way, if $T$ is bounded then $T^{-1}$ is automatically bounded as well by the bounded inverse theorem.