Proof Theory – Difference Between Assuming $P(n)$ and $\forall n : P(n)$ in Induction

inductionlogicproof-theory

In mathematical induction,* one first proves the base case, $P(0)$, holds true. In the next step, one assumes the $n$th case** is true, but how is this not assuming what we are trying to prove? Aren't we trying to prove any $n$th case** is true? So how can we assume this without employing circular reasoning?

I am not asking how to prove mathematical induction is true, but how mathematical induction is in accordance with rules of logic that do not admit circular reasoning as valid.*** Specifically, I am asking how, in the second step of induction, one does not assume what one is trying to prove.

In other words, as @DanielV put it below,

how does assuming $P(n)$ differ from assuming $\forall n : P(n)$?


*C. S. Peirce preferred to term it "Fermatian inference."
**=$(P(n))$ or $(\forall n : P(n))$ at this step?
***There are some logics that admit circular reasoning, which Aristotle refutes in his Posterior Analytics book 1, 72b-73a20, "by showing that circular demonstration is not acceptable".

Best Answer

There are two equivalent common formulations of the second step: one is to assume that the claim is true for $n$ and trying to prove it's true for $n+1$. The other is to assume it's true for $n-1$ and try to prove it for $n$. Either way, we are not assuming what we're trying to prove, we're assuming the case before what we're trying to prove.

Perhaps a more intuitive way to explain the induction technique is that we're demonstrating that there cannot be any counterexamples. We do this by showing that no case can be the lowest counterexample; neither the base case, nor any case after that. The axiom of induction that others have referenced says that this absence of a lowest counterexample is enough to conclude that the statement is true in all cases.