If $U_1$, $U_2,\ldots,U_n$ are proper subspaces of a vector space $V$ over a field $F$, and $|F|\gt n-1$, why is $V$ not equal to the union of the subspaces $U_1$, $U_2,\ldots,U_n$?
Linear Algebra – Why V is Not Equal to the Union of n Proper Subspaces
linear algebravector-spaces
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Here's a proof of the finite dimensional case over any field (finite or infinite):
Theorem. Let $\mathbf{V}$ be a nonzero finite dimensional vector space over $\mathbf{F}$. If $\mathbf{V}$ is a union of $\kappa$ proper subspaces, then $\kappa\geq|\mathbf{F}|$.
Proof. Write $\mathbf{V}=\bigcup\limits_{k\in\kappa} W_{k}$, with $W_k$ a proper subspace of $\mathbf{V}$. By enlarging the $W_k$ as necessary, we may assume that $\dim(\mathbf{V}/W_i) = 1$ for all $i$.
The proof is by induction on $\dim(\mathbf{V})$. The result is trivially true if $\dim(\mathbf{V})=1$, because $\mathbf{V}$ is never the union of proper subspaces in this case.
For the case of $\dim(\mathbf{V})=2$, let $\{w_1\}$ be a basis for $W_1$, and let $v\notin W_1$. For each $\alpha\in \mathbf{F}$ there exists $j_{\alpha}\in\kappa$ such that $w_1+\alpha v\in W_{j_{\alpha}}$. Moreover, if $\alpha\neq\beta$, then $w_1+\alpha v$ and $w_1+\beta v$ are linearly independent, since $\{w_1,v\}$ are a basis for $\mathbf{V}$. Thus, no $W_k$ contains more than one $w_1+\alpha v$. This gives an injection from $\mathbf{F}$ to $\kappa$, proving that $\kappa\geq|\mathbf{F}|$, as required.
Assume the result holds for $n$-dimensional vector spaces, and let $\mathbf{V}$ be $(n+1)$-dimensional. Let $\{w_1,\ldots,w_n\}$ be a basis for $W_1$, and $v\notin W_1$. For each $\alpha\in\mathbf{F}$, consider the $n$-dimensional subspace $W_{\alpha}=\mathrm{span}(w_1+\alpha v,w_2,\ldots,w_n)$. If $W_{\alpha}$ is contained in some $W_k$, then $W_{\alpha}=W_k$ by dimension considerations; and if $W_{\alpha}=W_{\beta}$, then $\alpha=\beta$, for otherwise we would be able to find a nontrivial linear dependency involving $w_1,\ldots,w_n,v$. So there is again an injection from the set $$S=\{\alpha\in\mathbf{F} \mid W_{\alpha}=W_k\text{ for some }k\in \kappa\}$$ to $\kappa$ (assuming WLOG that the $W_k$ are pairwise distinct). If the set has cardinality $|\mathbf{F}|$ we are done. Otherwise, let $\alpha_0\in\mathbf{F}\setminus S$, and look at $W_{\alpha_0}$. For each $k\in \kappa$, $W_{\alpha_0}\cap W_k\neq W_{\alpha_0}$; since $$W_{\alpha_0} = W_{\alpha_0}\cap\mathbf{V} = W_{\alpha_0}\cap\left(\bigcup_{k\in\kappa}W_k\right) = \bigcup_{k\in\kappa}(W_{\alpha_0}\cap W_k),$$ then by the induction hypothesis we have that $\kappa\geq|\mathbf{F}|$. QED
I suspect a similar argument can be made in the infinite dimensional case; certainly, we can construct the analogous set to $S$, and if $|S|=|\mathbf{F}|$ then we are done. But if not, then $\dim(W_{\alpha})=\dim(\mathbf{V})$, so we cannot really use a reduction argument. But I think there may be a way to tweak this.
As Pete L. Clark has noted, the result does not hold in the infinite dimensional case.
The opposite of the statement is $U_1 \neq V$ and $U_2\neq V$
Suppose the opposite is true, i.e. both $U_1, U_2$ are proper subsets of V, then $\exists v_1, v_2 \in V$ such that $v_1\notin U_2$ and $v_2\notin U_1$. Further, $U_1 \cup U2 = V $ implies $v_1\in U_1$ and $v_2\in U_2$.
Now since V is a vector space, $v_1, v_2 \in V$ implies $v_1+v_2 \in V$. But $v_1+v_2 \notin U_1$ since $v_2 \notin U_1$. Similarly, $v_1+v_2 \notin U_2$. So $v_1+v_2 \notin U_1\cup U_2$, contradicting $U_1\cup U_2 = V$.
Best Answer
If $|F|=q<\infty$, and $V$ is $m$-dimensional ($m<\infty$), then any proper subspace $U_i$ has at most $q^{m-1}-1$ non-zero elements. So to cover the $q^m-1$ non-zero vectors of $V\,$, the given $n\le q$ subspaces are not going to be enough, because $$n(q^{m-1}-1)\le q(q^{m-1}-1)<q^m-1.$$ So we need at least $|F|+1>n$ subspaces to get the job done.
If $m=\infty$, then we can extend all the subspaces to have codimension one (i.e. $\dim_F(V/U_i)=1$ for all $i$). In that case the intersection $U$ of all the $U_i$:s has finite codimension, and we can study $V/U$ instead of $V$ reducing the probelm to the previous case.
If $|F|=\infty, m<\infty$? Well, then we need some reinterpretation. The following argument shows that we need an infinite number of subspaces to cover $V$, and an uncountable number of subspaces to cover $\mathbf{R}^m$. Again, assume that all the subspaces have codimension one (w.l.o.g.), and that $m\geq 2$ (also w.l.o.g.). Identify $V$ with $F^m$, and consider the set $$ S=\{(1,t,t^2,\ldots,t^{m-1})\in V\mid t\in F\}. $$ Any $U_i$ is now a hyperplane and consists of zeros $(x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_m)$ of a single non-trivial homogeneous linear equation $$a_{i1}x_1+a_{i2}x_2+\cdots+a_{in}x_m=0.$$ Therefore the number of elements of the intersection $S\cap U_i$ is equal to the number of solutions $t\in F$ of $ a_{i1}+a_{i2}t+\cdots+a_{im}t^{m-1}=0$ and is thus $<m$, because a non-zero polynomial of degree $<m$ has less than $m$ solutions in a field. This shows that if $F$ is infinite, we need an infinite number of subspaces to cover all of $S$. Also, if $F$ is uncountable, then we need an uncountable number of subspaces to cover $S$. Obviously it is necessary to cover all of $S$ in order to cover all of $V$.