Linear Algebra – Is Operator Nilpotent if $0$ is the Only Eigenvalue?

linear algebralinear-transformationsnilpotence

In a finite dimensional vector space, if $0$ is an eigenvalue and the only eigenvalue of a linear operator, is that operator nilpotent?

There is this post which shows the other direction.

Prove that the only eigenvalue of a nilpotent operator is 0?

I would think the question would be posed as "iff" to the extent the answer to my question is affirmative.

To the extent that is not the case, I would please appreciate an example to that effect.

Thanks

Best Answer

If your field is algebraically closed (i.e. if we're including complex eigenvalues/eigenvectors), then the answer is yes.

If $0$ is the only eigenvector of the operator $A$, then $A$ has characteristic polynomial $p(x) = x^n$. By the Cayley-Hamilton theorem, $A^n = 0$.


On the other hand: if we're only including real eigenvalues, then we can say that the operator $$ \pmatrix{0&-1&0\\1&0&0\\0&0&0} $$ has zero as its only eigenvalue but fails to be nilpotent.

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