I'm having trouble grasping what it means for two points to be conjugate on a Riemannian manifold. Could someone provide a geometric or intuitive explanation for this?
For clarification: given a geodesic $\gamma: [0,a] \to M$, the point $\gamma(t)$ is conjugate to $p=\gamma(0)$ if there exists a Jacobi field $J$, not identically zero, along $\gamma$ such that $J(0)=J(t)=0$.
Best Answer
$\newcommand{\ga}{\gamma}$
Let $p \in M, v,w \in T_PM$. We consider a $1$-parameter family of geodesics:
$$\ga_s(t)=\exp_p(t(v+sw)).$$
Recall that $\ga(t)=\exp_p(tv)$ is the unique geodesic passing through $p$ (at $t=0$) with velocity $v$. Thus, $\ga_s$ is the unique geodesic passing through $p$ (at $t=0$) with velocity $v+sw$. (We are slowly changing the initial velocity of our geodesic).
Note that $J(0)=0$. (since all our geodesics start at the same point $p$ at $t=0$). Moreover, every Jacobi field along $\ga$ satisfying $J(0)=0$ can arise from such a family of geodesics.
Hence, if $q=\ga(t_0)$ is conjugate to $\ga(0)=p$ along $\ga$, this means that there is a continuous family of geodesics starting from $p$ which "almost" meet at $q$. (They meet at $q$ only "up to first order").
Clearly, if $\ga_s(t_0)=q$ for every $s$ (that is all the geodesics in the family meet at $q$ at time $t_0$) then $J(t_0)=0$, but the reverse implication is false in general.