[Math] How to reduce this to Sturm-Liouville form

analysisfunctional-analysisordinary differential equationsreal-analysis

I have the ODE $$-(1-x^2) \frac{d^2 f(x)}{dx^2} + x \frac{df(x)}{dx}+g(x)f(x)=\lambda f(x)$$

and I want to reduce it to Sturm-liouville form.

The problem is that we don't have $2x$ but just $x$. otherwise it would be similar to the Legendre differential equation.

Could anybody help me with that? By the way, does this mean that the Sturm-Liouville operator is not self-adjoint?

Best Answer

Here is an approach. Assume we have the ode

$$ a(x)y''+b(x)y'+c(x)y = 0 \longrightarrow (*)$$

and we want to have the Sturm Liouville Form. Multiply $(*)$ by the function $\mu(x)$ as

$$ \mu\,a y''+\mu b y'+\mu c y = 0 .$$

To determine $\mu(x)$ we have

$$(\mu a y' )' +\mu c y = 0 $$

$$ \implies (\mu a)' = \mu b $$

$$ \implies \mu(x) = e^{\int \frac{b(x)-a'(x)}{a(x)}}. $$

Now you can advance.