[Math] How to prove that the following predicate formula is valid…

first-order-logicpredicate-logicproof-writing

I've been having trouble with proving validity in predicate logic. A question was given to us during a lecture that I was not able to attend and so I can't figure out the answer to the following

Show that the following is valid
$$\forall x.P(x) \vee \forall x.Q(x) \rightarrow \forall x.(P(x) \vee Q(x))$$

The way I was thinking of doing this was to assume that the formula is false. Then, find an interpretation such that that the antecedent is true and the consequent is false. I expect there to be a contradiction which I can then use to say that since I have reached a contradiction, then my assumtption that the formula was false was incorrect. Therefore, the formula must hold for all interpretations, and is therefore valid. However, I can't seem to figure out how to go about doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks

Best Answer

Your approach is correct. Suppose that $\forall xP(x) \vee \forall xQ(x)$ is true and $\forall x(P(x) \vee Q(x))$ is false. Negating the quantifier and applying De Morgan's law gives $\exists x(\neg P(x) \wedge \neg Q(x))$, so that $P(a)$ and $Q(a)$ are false for some $a$ in the domain. However, two applications of universal instantiation imply that either $P(a)$ or $Q(a)$ are true. This is a contradiction, since $P(a)$ and $Q(a)$ are false.

An easy way to check check formulas of propositional and predicate logic for validity is the method of semantic tableaux, which gives a proof procedure for predicate (and other more exotic) logics.