[Math] How to conclude this proof that real and imaginary parts of holomorphic functions are harmonic.

complex-analysis

I want to prove that if $f$ is holomorphic on an open set $\Omega$, then both the real and imaginary parts are harmonic, so I have proved that:

$$4\frac{\partial}{\partial z} \frac{\partial}{\partial \bar{z}}=4\frac{\partial}{\partial \bar{z}} \frac{\partial}{\partial z}=\Delta$$

and I know that if $f$ is holomorphic then $\frac{\partial f}{\partial \bar{z}} =0$ but I can't conclude using this facts that the real and imaginary parts are harmonic. Because I know that $\Delta f=0$, but I think that is not enough.

Can someone help me with this issue please?

Thanks in advance.

Best Answer

If you really want to do this using Wirtinger derivatives, $$ u = \operatorname{Re}(f) = \frac12(f + \bar f), $$ so $$ \Delta u = 2 \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial z \partial \bar z} + 2 \frac{\partial^2 \bar{f}}{\partial z \partial \bar z} = 0 $$ since $\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial \bar z} = 0$ and $\dfrac{\partial \bar f}{\partial z} = \overline{\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial \bar z}} = 0$, and similarly for $v = \operatorname{Im}(f)$.