[Math] How do i prove that a measure space induced by an outer measure is complete

measure-theoryreal-analysis

Royden Real-analysis 4th edition p.349

Let $X$ be a set.
Let $\mu$ be an outer measure on $P(X)$.
Define $\mathfrak{M}$ = $\lbrace A\subset X \mid A \text{ is } \mu- \text{ measurable} \rbrace$.
Let $\mu^*$ be the restriction of $\mu$ to $\mathfrak{M}$.
Then, $(X,\mathfrak{M},\mu^*)$ is a complete measure space.

I know that it is a measure space, but how do i prove that it is complete?

Best Answer

Subset $A$ of a measure 0 set $B$ would have outer measure 0. Given any $E$ then $\mu(A\bigcap E)=0$ because $A\bigcap E\subset B$; and $\mu(A^{c}\bigcap E)=\mu(E)$ because $B^{c}\bigcap E\subset A^{c}\bigcap E\subset E$ and $\mu(B^{c}\bigcap E)=\mu(E)$ since $B$ is measurable with measure 0.

Hence $\mu(A\bigcap E)+\mu(A^{c}\bigcap E)=\mu(E)$ so $A$ is measurable.

A more intuitive way to look at it is that a null set basically have no effects whatsoever, and definition of measurable sets depend only on what kind of harm the set could do.