[Math] How could it be possible for the Goldbach conjecture to be undecidable

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The answer to the question "Could it be that Goldbach conjecture is undecidable?" claims that it is possible for something such as the Goldbach conjecture to be undecidable, meaning that assuming that it is true and assuming that it is false would both lead to no contradiction.

But if it is undecidable, then, if we assume that it is false, it would mean that exists an even number that cannot be written as the sum of two primes. If a natural number exists, then it can be written down using a finite number of digits (any natural number is definable). This means that that number exists whether or not the conjecture is true, so if we assumed that it was true, there would be a contradiction, so it therefore can't be undecidable.

What is the flaw in what I just said?

Best Answer

What is the flaw in what I just said?

Your argument correctly shows that the Goldbach conjecture cannot be false and undecidable. However, it can be true and undecidable.

This is equivalent to saying that it can be true in the standard model of, say, Peano arithmetic, but false in some nonstandard model: in a nonstandard model there may be a nonstandard counterexample to Goldbach's conjecture which is not an ordinary integer, and so which cannot be written down in the usual sense.

The reason it can be true and yet assuming it's false doesn't lead to a contradiction is that if it's undecidable, Peano arithmetic doesn't know it's true, so Peano arithmetic can't use the fact that it's true in a proof.

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