[Math] Homology group of S1

algebraic-topologyhomology-cohomology

In Algebraic Topology by Hatchers, the first example of simplicial homology group is created using a segment $a$ which two endpoints are identified, generating the circle $S^1$. The definition of the n-th homology group is $\text{Ker} \: \partial_{n} / \text{Im} \: \partial_{n+1}$.

For the homology group 0: $H^\Delta_0$, $\text{Ker} \: \partial_{0}$ is the free abelian group generated by $[e]$, called $\Delta_0(S^1)$. $\text{Im} \: \partial_{1}$ is 0. The conclusion then is that $H^\Delta_0 \approx \mathbb{Z}$. I do not understand why, since if I subtract two elements of $\text{Ker} \: \partial_{0}$, I do not necessarily obtain 0, the only element of $\text{Im} \: \partial_{1}$.

For the homology group 1: $H^\Delta_1$, $\text{Ker} \: \partial_{1}$ is the free abelian group generated by $[a]$, called $\Delta_1(S^1)$. There are no 2-simplices, therefore $\text{Im} \: \partial_{1}$ is 0. If I substract two elements of $\text{Ker} \: \partial_{0}$, I also do not necessarily obtain 0, the only element of $\text{Im} \: \partial_{2}$. For example, I could do: $3[a]-2[a]$.

Where is the error in my reasoning ?

Best Answer

"...if I subtract two elements of $\mathop{Ker} \partial_0$ I do not necessarily obtain $0$'' -- Correct, which is why the homology is not trivial: if $\sigma_1 - \sigma_2 \in \mathop{Im} \partial_1$ for all $\sigma_1$ and $\sigma_2$, then $[\sigma_1] = [\sigma_2]$ for all $\sigma_1$ and $\sigma_2$ so that $H_0$ would be $0$.

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